北京市丰台区2020届下学期初中九年级二模考试英语试卷

本试卷共五道大题, 39道小题, 满分60分, 考试时间90分钟。

知识运用(共14分)

一、单项填空(共6分, 每小题0. 5分)

从下面各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中, 选择可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

1. My sister likes travelling. __________likes beautiful mountains and lakes.

A. She        B. He        C. They        D. I

2. The stories about Sherlock Holmes are famous__________ many countries.

A. at          B. on        C. in          D. of

3. He failed the exam, __________ he didn’t give up.

A. because      B. so        C. or        D. but

4. Bella is eleven years old and she is ____________ than her mother.

A. tall        B. taller        C. tallest        D. the tallest

5.- Jenny, ___________ books arc these?

-They are Tom’s.

A. who        B. which        C. what        D. whose

6. —Must I hand in the report today?

—No, you___________. The deadline is 5 p. m. tomorrow.

A. can’t        B. needn’t      C. shouldn’t      D. mustn’t

7. My father and I ___________ the dog near the park every evening.

A. walk        B. walked      C. are walking      D. will walk

8. I ______________you as soon as I arrive in Beijing,

A. call        B. called        C. will call      D. is calling

9. Judy Brown ____________ as an English teacher in our school for five years.

A. work        B. has worked      C. worked      D. will work

10. Ben ____________ basketball when Sarah saw him yesterday.

A. plays        B. played        C. was playing      D. has played

11.It is reported that millions of masks ____________ abroad last week.

A. were sold        B. will sell      C. sold      D. will be sold

12.— Could you tell me ___________at Beijing Daxing International Airport?

—At 10:00 tomorrow morning.

A. when we met            B. when did we meet

C. when we will meet          D. when will we meet

二、完形填空(共8分, 每小题1分)

阅读下面的短文, 掌握其大意, 然后从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中, 选择最佳选项。

Jaden went to do an interview in a big company.

During the interview, the director asked, “Who __13__ for your school fees?” He answered, “It was my mother. She 14 _as a clothes cleaner to earn money for my education. “Then the director asked him to show his_ 15 _Jaden showed a pair of hands that were smooth and perfect.

The director asked, “Have you ever_ 16__ your mother to wash the clothes before?” Jaden answered, ” Never. My mother can wash clothes faster than me. ”

The director said, “I have a request. When you go back today, go and clean your mother’s hands, and then see me tomorrow morning. ”

Jaden felt that his chance of getting the job was_ 17 __When he went back, he happily asked his mother to let him clean her hands. His mother felt strange, happy but with mixed feelings. She showed her hands to him. It was the first time

Jaden_18 _that his mother’s hands were so wrinkled, and there were so many bruises(裂口)in her hands. Some bruises were so painful that his mother shivered when they were cleaned with water. It was this pair of hands that washed clothes every day to enable him to pay for the school fees. After finishing the cleaning, Jaden __19__ washed all the clothes for his mother.

Next morning, Jaden went to the director’s office. The director asked, “Can you tell me what you have done yesterday?” He answered, “I cleaned my mother’s hands and also finished cleaning all the clothes. “The director asked, “What about your feelings?” Jaden said, “Now I am_20_for those who helped me in the past.

Without my mother, I would not be who I am today. I come to know the importance and value of family relationship, ”

The director said, “This is what I am looking for to be my manager. You are hired. ”

13. A. paid      B. called        C. waited        D. asked

14. A. acted      B. studied      C. worked      D. dressed

15. A. feet      B. arms        C. legs        D. hands

16. A. promised    B. helped        C. supported      D. laughed

17. A. high      B. hard        C. fair        D. little

18. A. remembered    B. expected      C. proved        D. noticed

19. A. impatiently    B. quietly        C. carelessly      D. happily

20. A. regretful    B. cheerful      C. thankful      D. hopeful

阅读理解(共36 分)

三、阅读下列短文, 根据短文内容, 从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中, 选择最佳选项。(共26分, 每小题2分)

Do you have plans for your summer holiday? Good plans help you spend a meaningful and excellent holiday.

Jason Moore, 18

This summer, I’ll volunteer with Special House Program. The workers there are well trained and they have a lot of building experience. They build good, low-cost houses and sell them to the poor. They’ll teach me what to do, and then I am going to have a chance to learn how to build houses.

Richard Smith, 14

I am writing to my pen friend abroad, telling him what I want to do during my holidays. My classmates and I will go on a one-day picnic on the beach of Oneida Lake. My math and chemistry are not good enough, so I will spend two weeks on extra lessons. And the rest of the holiday I will go lazing around, listen to music or watch some programs on television.

Mark Perez. 17

There are many things that I would like to do in my holidays. First of all will visit all my friends by turns. Besides, my classmates and I will organize cricket (板球)matches in the Fitness Gym during the holiday. Cricket is my favorite sport. I am looking forward to playing in the matches and bringing honors to our team.

Alexi Brown. 15

This year, we have planned a long trip to Mongolia which has the most beautiful grassland. I think it is going to be an enjoyable holiday. We are going to stay in a cottage(小木屋)and visit all the most famous places in Mongolia. I hope the weather is going to be favorable for us when we are there.

21. __________ will be a volunteer this summer.

A. Jason Moore    B. Richard Smith    C. Mark Perez      D. Alexi Brown

22. Richard Smith will go to__________

A. Special House Program          B. Oneida Lake

C. the Fitness Gym              D. Mongolia

23. Alexi has planned to _______________________.

A. learn how to build houses           B. have extra lessons

C. take part in cricket matches        D. have a long trip

B

Simon was a curious(好奇的)boy. He lived with his grandfather. One night, he secretly entered the store room where his grandfather kept his priceless antiques (古董).

Simon stood on a chair. He lifted the box where his grandfather had kept many wrist-watches. While getting down from the chair, the box slipped out of his hands and fell onto the floor. To his shock, he found the glass of his grandfather’s favorite watch broken. Simon got frightened. He picked up the pieces of glass. He put the broken watch back into the box and placed the box back on the shelf. He could not sleep that night.

The next morning, Simon got up early. He gathered courage o go and admit his mistake to his grandfather. He told grandfather everything. The grandfather looked thoughtful. He did not say anything and went over to the store room. Simon kept standing with his head down.

Having returned from the store room the grandfather said to Simon, “I felt very angry when you had broken my precious watch. Your grandmother gifted it to me on our first wedding anniversary. But you need not worry. Only the glass is broken. I shall have it replaced. ”

Simon felt relieved(释然的). After some time, his grandfather went into the kitchen and brought a glass of milk to him. And said, “It was brave enough of you to tell me the truth. You knew that I would scold(责骂)you, didn’t you?”

Simon said, “I was scared at fist But I didn’t want to tell a lie. I should not have touched your things without your permission”

“Don’t be scared to own up your mistake. “Grandfather said, “It is brave to admit your mistake. You may be scared of being scolded. But it is the only way for you to be free from guilt(愧疚), ”

24. What did Simon break?

A. A cup.       B. A chair      C. A watch.       D. A mirror.

25. The next morning Simon got up early and__________

A. asked his uncle for help          B. hid himself in the store room

C. told the truth to his grandfather        D. cleaned the whole room carefully

26. What can we learn from the story?

A. Be brave to face your mistake.         B. Be confident to express your ideas.

C. A kind smile can give us courage.       D. A curious mind can bring us happiness.

C

When thinking of ways to relax in life, usually things like yoga. jogging and music come to mind. These are great, to be sure. But getting a friend can also have many benefits. While human friends provide great social support, furry friends like cats and dogs can come with some great benefits.

Pets can improve people’s mood. For those who love animals, it’s actually impossible to stay in a bad mood when a pair of loving puppy eyes meets yours, or when a super-soft cat rubs up against your hand. The study found that people with AIDS were less likely to suffer from deep sadness if they owned a pet.

Pets also encourage people to get out and exercise. Whether people walk their dogs because they need it, or are more likely to enjoy a walk when they have companionship, dog owners do spend more time walking than non-pet owners.

While we all know the power of talking about your problems with a good friend who is a good listener, research shows that spending time with pets may be even better! People actually experience less stress(压力)when their pets are with them than when a supportive friend is present! A recent study performed by Washington

State University(WSU) has proved that petting cats and dogs for just ten minutes is an effective way to reduce stress levels. The team chose 249 students and put them into four groups. The first group was provided 10 minutes to play with dogs and cats.

The second group waited in line while observing the first group. The third group watched a video of the same animals, while the fourth group was just waiting. “What we wanted to learn was whether this exposure(接触)would help students reduce their stress, and it did, “said Patricia Pendry, a professor in WSU.

It’s important to realize that owning a pet isn’t for everyone. It does come with additional work and responsibility, which can bring its own stress. However, for most people, the advantages of having a pet outweigh the drawbacks(缺点), Having a furry best friend can reduces stress in your life and bring you support when times get tough.

27. The study performed by WSU shows that ______________.

A. people keep pets for fun          B. animals are good listeners

C. pets are friendlier than humans        D. petting animals helps reduce stress

28. What can we learn from the passage?

A. Pets can help doctors treat AIDS.

B. Dog owners are likely to exercise more.

C. Human friends are more supportive than pets.

D. Pet owners are more responsible than others.

29. What is the purpose of this passage?

A. To give advice on how to keep pets.     B. To draw people’s attention to life stress.

C. To introduce benefits of keeping pets.     D. To share ideas on how to reduce stress.

D

If you know a teenager or gamer, you have probably heard about the latest video game: Fortnite. In the game, up to 100 players land into a small island with guns, and then kill or hide from other players in an attempt to be the lone survivor, The main goal is to kill other players, The popularity of these types of games raises clear questions about the effects of violent(暴力的)gaming. Do violent video games lead to real life violence?

The research on this question is mixed. Over the years, researchers have performed studies to find out whether violent video games lead to problems such as aggression(攻击性)and poor performance in school. Many studies have found that people who play violent video games are more likely to be involved in aggressive behavior. In fact, there was enough research leading to this conclusion(结论)that the American Psychological Association published a policy statement in 2015 concluding that playing violent video games leads to more aggressive behaviors.

But many other researchers disagree. Many studies about violent crime and the use of video violent games find no evidence that increased sales of violent video games leads to an obvious growth in violent crimes. Researchers state that if violent games directly led to violent behavior, the data(数据)would show increases in violent crime on a large-scale as more people played violent games. In fact, there is some evidence that as more youth play video games, rates of youth violence have decreased.

A recent analysis finds that much of the research on violence and video games is affected by publication bias, Studies which drew the conclusions that video games lead to aggression and violence are more likely to be published. However, studies which find violent video games don’t have an effect on violence are seldom to be published. As a result, large reviews of the data conclude violent video games lead to aggression without considering research to the contrary.

So what’s the take-home message here? There is not enough evidence that violent video games lead to aggressive behavior. That does not mean that every game is for every child. Certainly, many violent video games are scary and unfit for some kids. Understanding each child’s needs and creating a plan that sets out rules for media use and monitors kids’ activities on screens are proper solutions.

30. The writer mentions the game Fortnite to__________

A. introduce the latest video game        B. show the popularity of the game

C. lead in the topic of violent gaming      D. share the skills of winning the game

31. What is Paragraph2mainly about?

A. Harmful effects of violent video games.

B. Reasons of playing violent video games.

C. The aggressive behaviors in violent games.

D. The research process of the violent games.

32. The word “bias” in Paragraph 4 probably means”___________________”

A. common practice             B. unfair preference

C. unusual experience            D. serious misunderstanding

33. The wrier probably agrees that___________.

A. children should stay away from video games

B. violent video games lead to aggressive behaviors

C. crimes increase with the popularity of violent gaming

D. children need to be guided when playing video games

四、阅读短文, 根据短文内容回答问题。(共10分, 每小题2分)

You might have noticed that sometimes, when you are playing mobile games, the picture suddenly freezes(卡顿)because the network speed is o slow. However, these annoying things will soon become a thing of the past, as China just issued commercial licenses (发放商用牌照)for 5G networks on June 6, 2019. This means that China’s telecommunications companies will be able to offer 5G network speeds to users.

The “G” in “5G”stands for generation. IG let us talk to each other, 2G let us send messages, 3G gave us mobile data and internet, and 4G made all of these things faster. So what will SG bring?

It will allow us to download an entire HD movie in seconds. The delay(延时)between sending and receiving data will be shortened. Now, 4Gtakes about 100 to 200 milliseconds, while humans have a reaction time of about 200 to 300 milliseconds. But 5G will get the delay down to I millisecond or less, which is almost real-time.

With the development of 5G, new kinds of technology will be created and used.

Robots will be used to do operations because doctors will be able to control them from somewhere else without any delay. Self-driving cars will be able to drive more safely because they can smoothly communicate with each other, traffic lights and road sensors.

5G networks will be powerful, but not perfect. They do have some disadvantages.

On one hand, 5G signals don’t go very far. On 4G networks, you can be 10 kilometers away from the nearest transmission base(传送基站)and don’t lose signal. But 5G maxes out at about 300 meters. On the other hand, 5G signals have a hard time going through walls and rains. This means we will need to build many small transmitters to make sure 5G signals can be received everywhere. Soon you may see small boxes on every street lamp and building.

34. Why does the picture freeze when we are playing mobile games?

35, What does “G” in”5G”stand for?

36. How long will it take to download an entire HD movie with 5G?

37. What is the fourth paragraph mainly about?

38. What disadvantages do 5G networks have?

书面表达(共10分)

五、文段表达(10分)

39. 从下面两个题目中任选一题, 根据中文和英文提示, 完成一篇不少于50 词的文段写作。文中已给出内容不计入总词数。所给提示词语仅供选用。请不要写出你的校名和姓名。

题目①

假如你是李华, 你们学校将要举办关于垃圾分类的科普活动, 请给你们班的交换生Peter发邮件邀请他参加, 告诉他活动的时间、地点以及活动的安排。

提示词语:introduce, game, poster

提示问题: ●When and where will the activity be held?

●What will you do in the activity?

Dear Peter;

I’m writing to invite you to take part in our Garbage Sorting Activity.

___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Please let me know if there is anything more that I can help with.

Yours.

Li Hua

题目②

梦想能给我们带来无限的憧憬, 让我们扪有无限的动力。

某英文网站正在开展以”My dream job”为主题的狂文活动。假如你是李华, 请用英文写一篇短文投稿, 谈谈你的职业梦想。你理想的工作是什么?为什么?为了它你是如何准备的?

提示词语:useful, work hard, responsible

提示问题: ●What is your dream job?

●Why do you want to do it?

●What will you do to prepare for it?

___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

【试题答案】

知识运用(共14分)

一、单项填空(共6分,每小题0. 5分)

1. A   2. C   3. D   4. B   5. D  6. B

7. A   8. C   9. B   10. C  11. A   12. C

二、完形填空(共8分,每小题1分)

13. A  14. C   15. D   16. B   17. A   18. D  19. B  20. C

阅读理解(共36分)

三、阅读短文,选择最佳选项。(共26分,每小题2分)

21. A   22. B   23. D   24. C  25. C   26. A

27. D   28. B   29. C   30. C  31. A   32. B  33. D

四、阅读短文,回答问题。(共10分,每小题2分)

34. Because the network speed is too slow.

35. It stands for generation. /The “G” in “5G” stands for generation.

36. In seconds.

37. With the development of 5G, new kinds of technology will be created and used.

38. 5G signals don’t go very far and they have a hard time going through walls and rains.

书面表达(共10分)

五、文段表达(共10分)

题目①:

The activity will be held at 3 o’clock next Monday afternoon in the school hall. First, Mr. Wang will introduce how to sort different kinds of garbages. Then there will be several interesting games to help us practise it. At last, we need to draw a poster about what we have learned. I hope you will enjoy yourself and gain some knowledge to protect the environment.

题目②:

My dream job is to be a doctor, because I want to help others and become a useful person. In 2020, facing the COVID-19, many doctors and nurses were so brave that they volunteered to fight against the virus. They are my role models. Being a doctor is not easy, so I need to study hard to get prepared. I will try my best to be a responsible and reliable doctor.

文段表达评分标准

第一档:(10~8. 5分)

完全符合题目要求,观点正确,要点齐全。句式多样,词汇丰富。语言准确,语意连贯,表达清楚,具有逻辑性。

第二档:(8~6分)

基本符合题目要求,观点正确,要点齐全。语法结构和词汇基本满足文章需要。语言基本通顺,语意基本连贯,表达基本清楚。虽然有少量语言错误,但不影响整体理解。

第三档:(5~4分)

部分内容符合题目要求,要点不齐全。语法结构和词汇错误较多,语言不通顺,表达不够清楚,影响整体理解。

第四档:(3~0分)

与题目有关内容不多,只是简单拼凑词语,所写内容难以理解。

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